Q 1. Central Idea Selection
Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?
a)
India does not have enough resources for promoting quality education in its universities.
b)
The institutions of higher learning in the country should not be under the control of the Government.
c)
Classroom approach to higher education should be done away with.
d)
Classroom needs to be reimagined and teaching needs to be re-invented
Answer:
b
Q 2. Assumptions on Higher Education Funding
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Higher education is a constantly evolving subject that needs to align towards new developments in all spheres of society. II. In our country, sufficient funds are not allocated for promoting higher education. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
c
Q 3. Passage Crux Identification
Which one of the following statements reflects the crux of the passage?
a)
There is an urgent need for a public policy on consumption of cereal-based foods in wealthier societies.
b)
Animal-based food is far less efficient than grain/plant-based food in production and consumption.
c)
Plant-based protein should replace animal-based protein in our daily diet.
d)
Inequality in food production and consumption is inevitable in any fast changing society.
Answer:
c
Q 4. Food Industry Assumptions Analysis
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. The food manufacturing and processing industries in every country should align their objectives and processes in accordance with the changing needs of the societies. II. Wealthier societies tend to incur great loss of calories of food materials due to indirect utilization of their agricultural produce. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
d
Q 5. Maximum Divisibility by 35
What is the maximum value of n such that 7 × 343 × 385 × 1000 × 2401 × 77777 is divisible by 35ⁿ?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
7
Answer:
b
To solve the problem, we need to determine the maximum value of \( n \) such that the product \( 7 \times 343 \times 385 \times 1000 \times 2401 \times 77777 \) is divisible by \( 35^n \).
Step 1: Factorize 35.
\( 35 = 7 \times 5 \).
Thus, \( 35^n = 7^n \times 5^n \).
Step 2: Factorize each component of the product.
○ \( 7 = 7^1 \)
○ \( 343 = 7^3 \)
○ \( 385 = 5^1 \times 7^1 \times 11^1 \)
○ \( 1000 = 2^3 \times 5^3 \)
○ \( 2401 = 7^4 \)
○ \( 77777 = 7^1 \times 11111 \)
Step 3: Combine the factors.
The expression becomes:
\[ 7^1 \times 7^3 \times (5^1 \times 7^1) \times (2^3 \times 5^3) \times 7^4 \times (7^1 \times 11111) \]
Step 4: Simplify the powers of 7 and 5.
○ Total power of 7: \( 1 + 3 + 1 + 4 + 1 = 10 \)
○ Total power of 5: \( 1 + 3 = 4 \)
Step 5: Determine the maximum \( n \).
Since \( 35^n = 7^n \times 5^n \), the maximum \( n \) is determined by the smaller power, which is 4 for the factor of 5.
Thus, the maximum value of \( n \) such that the product is divisible by \( 35^n \) is 4. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 4.
Click
to
Read Full Explanation and All the Options
Explained
Step 1: Factorize 35.
\( 35 = 7 \times 5 \).
Thus, \( 35^n = 7^n \times 5^n \).
Step 2: Factorize each component of the product.
○ \( 7 = 7^1 \)
○ \( 343 = 7^3 \)
○ \( 385 = 5^1 \times 7^1 \times 11^1 \)
○ \( 1000 = 2^3 \times 5^3 \)
○ \( 2401 = 7^4 \)
○ \( 77777 = 7^1 \times 11111 \)
Step 3: Combine the factors.
The expression becomes:
\[ 7^1 \times 7^3 \times (5^1 \times 7^1) \times (2^3 \times 5^3) \times 7^4 \times (7^1 \times 11111) \]
Step 4: Simplify the powers of 7 and 5.
○ Total power of 7: \( 1 + 3 + 1 + 4 + 1 = 10 \)
○ Total power of 5: \( 1 + 3 = 4 \)
Step 5: Determine the maximum \( n \).
Since \( 35^n = 7^n \times 5^n \), the maximum \( n \) is determined by the smaller power, which is 4 for the factor of 5.
Thus, the maximum value of \( n \) such that the product is divisible by \( 35^n \) is 4. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 4.
Q 6. Sequence Number Puzzle
What is X in the sequence 24, X, 12, 18, 36, 90?
a)
18
b)
12
c)
9
d)
6
Answer:
b
To find X in the sequence 24, X, 12, 18, 36, 90, we need to identify the pattern.
1. Observe the sequence: 24, X, 12, 18, 36, 90.
2. Identify the pattern: Notice the relationship between consecutive numbers.
3. Calculate the pattern:
○ From 12 to 18: 12 × 1.5 = 18
○ From 18 to 36: 18 × 2 = 36
○ From 36 to 90: 36 × 2.5 = 90
4. Apply the pattern backwards:
○ From 12 to X: 12 ÷ 2 = 6 (incorrect)
○ From 24 to X: 24 ÷ 2 = 12 (correct)
Thus, X = 12. The correct answer is Option B: 12.
Click
to
Read Full Explanation and All the Options
Explained
1. Observe the sequence: 24, X, 12, 18, 36, 90.
2. Identify the pattern: Notice the relationship between consecutive numbers.
3. Calculate the pattern:
○ From 12 to 18: 12 × 1.5 = 18
○ From 18 to 36: 18 × 2 = 36
○ From 36 to 90: 36 × 2.5 = 90
4. Apply the pattern backwards:
○ From 12 to X: 12 ÷ 2 = 6 (incorrect)
○ From 24 to X: 24 ÷ 2 = 12 (correct)
Thus, X = 12. The correct answer is Option B: 12.
Q 7. CSAT 2025
P and Q walk along a circular track. They start at 5:00 a.m. from the same point in opposite directions. P walks at an average speed of 5 rounds per hour and Q walks at an average speed of 3 rounds per hour. How many times will they cross each other between 5:20 a.m. and 7:00 a.m.?
a)
12
b)
13
c)
14
d)
15
Answer:
b
1. Correct Answer: Option B: 13
2. Explanation:
To solve this problem, we need to determine how many times P and Q will cross each other between 5:20 a.m. and 7:00 a.m. as they walk along a circular track in opposite directions.
Step-by-step Calculation:
● Relative Speed: Since P and Q are walking in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds.
\[
\text{Relative Speed} = 5 \text{ rounds per hour} + 3 \text{ rounds per hour} = 8 \text{ rounds per hour}
\]
● Time Interval: We need to calculate the number of crossings between 5:20 a.m. and 7:00 a.m.
○ From 5:20 a.m. to 7:00 a.m. is 1 hour and 40 minutes.
○ Convert this time into hours:
\[
1 \text{ hour and } 40 \text{ minutes} = 1 + \frac{40}{60} = 1.67 \text{ hours}
\]
● Number of Crossings: To find the number of times they cross each other, multiply the relative speed by the time interval.
\[
\text{Number of Crossings} = \text{Relative Speed} \times \text{Time Interval} = 8 \text{ rounds per hour} \times 1.67 \text{ hours} = 13.36
\]
Since they can only cross each other a whole number of times, we take the integer part of the result, which is 13.
Therefore, P and Q will cross each other 13 times between 5:20 a.m. and 7:00 a.m.
Click
to
Read Full Explanation and All the Options
Explained
2. Explanation:
To solve this problem, we need to determine how many times P and Q will cross each other between 5:20 a.m. and 7:00 a.m. as they walk along a circular track in opposite directions.
Step-by-step Calculation:
● Relative Speed: Since P and Q are walking in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds.
\[
\text{Relative Speed} = 5 \text{ rounds per hour} + 3 \text{ rounds per hour} = 8 \text{ rounds per hour}
\]
● Time Interval: We need to calculate the number of crossings between 5:20 a.m. and 7:00 a.m.
○ From 5:20 a.m. to 7:00 a.m. is 1 hour and 40 minutes.
○ Convert this time into hours:
\[
1 \text{ hour and } 40 \text{ minutes} = 1 + \frac{40}{60} = 1.67 \text{ hours}
\]
● Number of Crossings: To find the number of times they cross each other, multiply the relative speed by the time interval.
\[
\text{Number of Crossings} = \text{Relative Speed} \times \text{Time Interval} = 8 \text{ rounds per hour} \times 1.67 \text{ hours} = 13.36
\]
Since they can only cross each other a whole number of times, we take the integer part of the result, which is 13.
Therefore, P and Q will cross each other 13 times between 5:20 a.m. and 7:00 a.m.
Q 8. CSAT 2025
P = +, Q = −, R = ×, S = ÷, then insert the proper notations between the successive numbers in the equation 60 _ 15 _ 3 _ 20 _ 4 _ 20:
a)
SPRQ
b)
QRPS
c)
QRSP
d)
SPQR
Answer:
b
Q 9. CSAT 2025
A train overtakes 2 persons X and Y walking at an average speed of 3 km/h and 4 km/h in the same direction and completely passes them in 8 seconds and 9 seconds respectively. What is the length of the train?
a)
15 m
b)
18 m
c)
20 m
d)
24 m
Answer:
c
Q 10. CSAT 2025
If N² = 12345678987654321, then how many digits does the number N have?
a)
8
b)
9
c)
10
d)
11
Answer:
b
Q 11. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements best reflects the corollary to the above passage?
a)
The benefit of economic reforms percolates down more slowly to the agriculture sector than in other sectors of the economy.
b)
For India, the green revolution was not as useful as it was expected to be.
c)
India lagged behind other countries in adapting mechanized and modern farming.
d)
Rural-to-urban migration resulted in the stagnant agriculture sector.
Answer:
a
Q 12. CSAT 2025
With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: The growing divergence between the fortunes of the agricultural and non-agricultural economy in India could have been reduced/contained by: 1. adapting large-scale cultivation of commercial crops and viable corporate farming. 2. providing free insurance for all crops and heavily subsidizing seeds, fertilizers, electricity and farm machinery at par with developed countries. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
d
Q 13. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage?
a)
We need to free the handloom industry from the limited narrative linked to preserving cultural heritage.
b)
Continued State support for handloom industry ensures the preservation of some glorious art forms and old traditions.
c)
Household units of the handloom sector should be modernized and made an economically viable organized industry.
d)
Handloom products need to be converted to machine-made designer products to make them more popular.
Answer:
a
Q 14. CSAT 2025
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. There is no need for the State to be involved in any manner in the handloom sector. II. Handloom products are no longer appealing and attractive in the rapidly changing modern world. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
d
Q 15. CSAT 2025
Consider the first 100 natural numbers. How many of them are not divisible by any one of 2, 3, 5, 7 and 9?
a)
20
b)
21
c)
22
d)
23
Answer:
c
Q 16. CSAT 2025
If 4 ≤ x ≤ 8 and 2 ≤ y ≤ 7 then what is the ratio of maximum value of (x + y) to minimum value of (x - y)?
a)
6
b)
46068
c)
-15/2
d)
None of the above
Answer:
d
Q 17. CSAT 2025
Let both p and k be prime numbers such that (p² + k) is also a prime number less than 30. What is the number of possible values of k?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
Answer:
b
Q 18. CSAT 2025
There are a sets of numbers each having only three positive integers with LCM equal to 1001 and HCF equal to 1. What is the value of 11?
a)
6
b)
7
c)
8
d)
More than 8
Answer:
d
Q 19. CSAT 2025
Let PQR be a 3-digit number, PPT be a 3-digit number, and PS be a 2-digit number, where P, Q, R, S, T are distinct non-zero digits. Further, PQR + PS = PPT. If Q = 3 and T < 6, then what is the number of possible values of (R, S)?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
More than 4
Answer:
b
Q 20. CSAT 2025
Consider the sequence AB_CC_A_BCCC_BBC_C that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence?
a)
B, C, B, C, A
b)
A, C, B, C, A
c)
B, C, B, A, C
d)
C, B, B, A, C
Answer:
c
Q 21. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and pragmatic message conveyed by the author of the passage?
a)
The mitigation and adaptation strategies to address/tackle the climate change is essentially the responsibility of each State.
b)
India is too diverse to implement any effective strategy or programme to address/tackle the climate change.
c)
It is basically the responsibility of the Union Government to implement the climate action plans and ensure net zero emissions.
d)
India needs to formulate effective climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies at the State/region level.
Answer:
d
Q 22. CSAT 2025
With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Green energy production can be linked to/integrated with the climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies. II. Effects of climate change are much more severe in coastal and mountainous regions. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
a
Q 23. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage?
a)
India's political executive should be aware that poverty and social inequality and the consequent sense of insecurity is the main social problem.
b)
In India, poverty is the primary reason for social inequality and insecurity.
c)
Poverty and social inequality are so intricately linked that they pose an unmanageable crisis for India.
d)
Insecurity, more than poverty, is the main economic issue that Government policies must address.
Answer:
d
Q 24. CSAT 2025
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. People above the poverty line also are prone to suffer from anxiety about economic insecurity. II. Eradication of poverty can result in peace and social equality in the country. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
a
Q 25. CSAT 2025
A solid cube is painted yellow on all its faces. The cube is then cut into 60 smaller but equal pieces by making the minimum number of cuts. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. The minimum number of cuts is 9. II. The number of smaller pieces which are not painted on any face is 6. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
c
Q 26. CSAT 2025
If 7 * 24 = 25 and 12 *16 =20, then what does 16 * 63 equal to?
a)
70
b)
66
c)
65
d)
64
Answer:
c
Q 27. CSAT 2025
The petrol price shot up by 10% as a result of the hike in crude oil prices. The price of petrol before the hike was ₹90 per litre. A person travels 2200 km every month and his car gives a mileage of 16 km per litre. By how many km should he reduce his travel if he wants to maintain his expenditure at the previous level?
a)
180 km
b)
200 km
c)
220 km
d)
240 km
Answer:
b
Q 28. CSAT 2025
A 4-digit number N is such that when divided by 3, 5, 6, 9 leaves a remainder 1, 3, 4, 7 respectively. What is the smallest value of N?
a)
1068
b)
1072
c)
1078
d)
1082
Answer:
c
Q 29. CSAT 2025
Consider the following statements: I. If A < B > C < D E F G H; then B is always greater than E. II. If P > Q = R > S = T < U = V > W; then S is always less than V. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
d
Q 30. CSAT 2025
What is the unit digit in the multiplication of 1 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 9 × ... × 999?
a)
a
b)
3
c)
5
d)
9
Answer:
c
Q 31. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?
a)
Conservation of biodiversity is not an issue to be worried about when some people depend on ecosystems for their livelihoods.
b)
Commercial exploitation of forests goes against the fundamental rights of the people dependent on forests for food and shelter.
c)
Sustenance of livelihood and degradation of ecosystem while being together exacerbate one another, leading to conflicts and imbalance.
d)
Commercial exploitation of ecosystems should be completely stopped
Answer:
c
Q 32. CSAT 2025
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. No country needs to depend on ecosystems to boost national income. 2. Resource-rich countries need to share their resources with those of scant resources so as to prevent the degradation of ecosystems. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
d
Q 33. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage?
a)
Economies of scale is essential for transition to green growth.
b)
Modern technological progress is intensely linked to path-dependent innovations.
c)
Countries with large economies are in a better position to adopt green technologies.
d)
Timing plays a crucial role in the case of green technology development.
Answer:
d
Q 34. CSAT 2025
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Path-dependent green investments will eventually most likely benefit growth as well as public finances in a country like India. II. If other green technologies follow the same pattern as that of solar energy, there will most likely be an easy green transition. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
a
Q 35. CSAT 2025
A natural number N is such that it can be expressed as N = p + q + r, where p, q and r are distinct factors of N. How many numbers below 50 have this property?
a)
6
b)
7
c)
8
d)
9
Answer:
c
Q 36. CSAT 2025
Three prime numbers p, q and r, each less than 20, are such that p - q = q - r. How many distinct possible values can we get for (p + q + r)?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
More than 6
Answer:
b
Q 37. CSAT 2025
How many possible values (p + q + r) are there satisfying 1/p + 1/q + 1/r = 1 where p, q and r are natural numbers (not necessarily distinct)?
a)
None
b)
One
c)
Three
d)
More than three
Answer:
c
Q 38. CSAT 2025
What comes at X and Y respectively in the following sequence? January, January, December, October, X, March, October, Y, September
a)
July, May
b)
July, April
c)
June, May
d)
June, April
Answer:
b
Q 39. CSAT 2025
Team X scored a total of N runs in 20 overs. Team Y tied the score in 10% less overs. Had team Y's average run rate (runs per over) been 50% higher, the scores would have been tied in 12 overs. How many runs were scored by team X?
a)
72
b)
144
c)
216
d)
Cannot be determined
Answer:
d
Q 40. CSAT 2025
The price (p) of a commodity is first increased by k%; then decreased by k%; again increased by k%; and again decreased by k%. If the new price is q, then what is the relation between p and q?
a)
p(104 − k²) = q × 108
b)
p(104 − k²)² = q × 104
c)
p(104 − k²) = q × 104
d)
p(104 − k²) = q × 108
Answer:
a
Q 41. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage?
a)
We must use WPI exclusively in measuring price rise and CPI should be done away with.
b)
The present calculation of inflation rate does not correctly measure price rise of individual item/commodity.
c)
Inflation data under-presents services in the consumption basket.
d)
Knowledge of inflation rate is not really of any use to anybody in the country.
Answer:
b
Q 42. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
a)
Trustworthiness cannot be expected in entrepreneurship.
b)
Trustworthy people are the most vulnerable people.
c)
No economic activity is possible without being exposed to betrayal.
d)
Trust is important though it entails risk
Answer:
d
Q 43. CSAT 2025
A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question: In a football match, team P playing against Q was behind by 3 goals with 10 minutes remaining. Does team P win the match? Statement I: Team P scored 4 goals in the last 10 minutes. Statement II: Team Q scored a total of 4 goals in the match. Which one of the following is correct?
a)
The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
b)
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
c)
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
d)
The Question cannot be answered even using any of the Statements.
Answer:
d
Q 44. CSAT 2025
A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question: Is (p + q)^2 - 4 positive, where p, q are natural numbers? Statement I: p < q Statement II: p > q Which one of the following is correct?
a)
The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
b)
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
c)
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
d)
The Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.
Answer:
b
Q 45. CSAT 2025
In a T20 cricket match, three players X, Y and Z scored a total of 37 runs. The ratio of number of runs scored by X to the number of runs scored by Y is equal to ratio of number of runs scored by Y to number of runs scored by Z. Value-I = Runs scored by X. Value-II = Runs scored by Y. Value-III = Runs scored by Z. Which one of the following is correct?
a)
Value-I < Value-II < Value-III
b)
Value-III < Value-II < Value-I
c)
Value-I < Value-III < Value-II
d)
Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
Answer:
d
Q 46. CSAT 2025
Let p + q = 10, where p, q are integers. Value-I = Maximum value of p × q when p, q are positive integers. Value-II = Maximum value of p × q when p ≥ -6, q ≥ -4. Which one of the following is correct?
a)
Value-I > Value-II
b)
Value-II > Value-I
c)
Value-I = Value-II
d)
Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
Answer:
c
Q 47. CSAT 2025
Consider a set of 11 numbers: Value-I = Minimum value of the average of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive integers ≥ -5. Value-II = Minimum value of the product of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive non-negative integers. Which one of the following is correct?
a)
Value-I < Value-II
b)
Value-II < Value-I
c)
Value-I = Value-II
d)
Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
Answer:
c
Q 48. CSAT 2025
The average of three numbers p, q and r is k. p is as much more than the average as q is less than the average. What is the value of r?
a)
k
b)
k - 1
c)
k + 1
d)
k / 2
Answer:
a
Q 49. CSAT 2025
Let x be a real number between 0 and 1. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. x² > x³ II. x > x² Select the correct answer using the below:
a)
only I
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
a
Q 50. CSAT 2025
The difference between any two natural numbers is 10. What can be said about the natural numbers which are divisible by 5 and lie between these two numbers?
a)
There is only one such number.
b)
There are only two such numbers.
c)
There can be more than one such number.
d)
No such number exists.
Answer:
c
Q 51. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?
a)
Corporate capitalism is important for economic growth of a State and also for democracy.
b)
Corporate capitalism is imperative for a modern State to achieve its political objectives.
c)
No State can ensure its economic survival for long without the role of corporate capitalism.
d)
Corporate capitalism and democracy have mutual dependence for their continued existence.
Answer:
a
Q 52. CSAT 2025
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Corporate capitalism promotes the growth of labour force and provides more employment opportunities. 2. Poor and marginalized sections of population are benefited by corporate capitalism due to trickle-down effect. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
c
Q 53. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements reflects the best explanation of the above passage?
a)
It emphasizes the inability of the State to enforce its will in practice against the opposition of certain groups within it.
b)
It is a cooperative organization for the promotion of the well-being and development of the personality of its members.
c)
It takes individuals out of a state of isolation and gives them a chance to participate in the common endeavour.
d)
It permits to its citizens to have a variety of loyalties and allegiance.
Answer:
c
Q 54. CSAT 2025
Consider the following statements: 1. There exists a natural number which when increased by 50% can have its number of factors unchanged. 2. There exists a natural number which when increased by 150% can have its number of factors unchanged. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
c
Q 55. CSAT 2025
There are 7 places A, B, C, D, E, F and G in a city connected by various roads AB, AC, CD, DE, BF, EG and FG. A is 6 km south of B. A is 10 km west of C. D is 5 km east of E. C is 6 km north of D. F is 9 km west of B. F is 12 km north of G. A person travels from D to F through these roads. What is the distance covered by the person?
a)
20 km
b)
25 km
c)
31 km
d)
37 km
Answer:
c
Q 56. CSAT 2025 (Reasoning)
In a certain code if 64 is written as 343 and 216 is written as 729, then how is 512 written in that code?
a)
1000
b)
1331
c)
1728
d)
2197
Answer:
b
Q 57. CSAT 2025
What is the remainder when 93 + 94 + 95 + 96 + ...... + 100 is divided by 6?
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
Answer:
a
Q 58. CSAT 2025
A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question: What is the smallest 1-digit number having exactly 4 distinct factors? Statement I: 2 is one of the factors. Statement II: 3 is one of the factors. Which one of the following is correct?
a)
The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
b)
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
c)
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
d)
The Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.
Answer:
d
Q 59. CSAT 2025
A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question: Let P, Q, R, S be distinct non-zero digits. If PP × PQ = RRSS, where P ≤ 3 and Q ≤ 4, then what is Q equal to? Statement I: R=1. Statement II: S=2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
a)
The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
b)
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
c)
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
d)
The Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.
Answer:
d
Q 60. CSAT 2025
A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question: How is Q related to P? Statement I: P has two sisters, R and S. Statement II: R's father is the brother of Q. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
a)
The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
b)
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
c)
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
d)
The Question cannot be answered even using any of the Statements.
Answer:
d
Q 61. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?
a)
Global climate change adversely affects the productivity of crops.
b)
Our total dependence on genetically honed crops entails possible food insecurity.
c)
Our food security should not depend on agricultural productivity alone.
d)
Genetically honed crops should be replaced with their wild varieties in our present cultivation practices.
Answer:
b
Q 62. CSAT 2025
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Global climate change can result in the migration of several plant diseases to new areas. II. Scientific understanding of the wild relatives of our present crops would enable us to strengthen food security. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
c
Q 63. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?
a)
Without opposition parties, the administration in a democracy gets to become more responsible.
b)
Democracy needs to have revolutionaries in opposition to keep the government alert.
c)
Rulers in a democracy need the support of opposition for their political survival.
d)
In a democracy, the opposition is indispensable for the balance of political power and good governance.
Answer:
d
Q 64. CSAT 2025
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. In a democracy, a strong opposition is required only if the Head of Government is indifferent. 2. The more aggressive the opposition, the better is the governance in a democracy. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
d
Q 65. CSAT 2025
P is the brother of Q and R. S is R's mother. T is P's father. How many of the following statements are definitely true? I. S and T are a couple. II. Q is T's son. III. T is Q's father. IV. S is P's mother. V. R is T's daughter. VI. P is S's son. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
Only two
b)
Only three
c)
Only four
d)
Only five
Answer:
c
Q 66. CSAT 2025
If NO is coded as 210, NOT is coded as 4200 and NOTE is coded as 21000, then how is NOTES coded?
a)
399000
b)
420000
c)
440000
d)
630000
Answer:
a/b
Q 67. CSAT 2025
If FRANCE is coded as 654321 and GERMANY is coded as 9158437, then how is YEMEN coded?
a)
54321
b)
81913
c)
71913
d)
71813
Answer:
d
Q 68. CSAT 2025
The 5-digit number PQRST (all distinct digits) is such that T = 0, P is thrice T, S is greater than Q by 4, while Q is greater than R by 3. How many such 5-digit numbers are possible?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
Answer:
b
Q 69. CSAT 2025
X can complete one-third work in 6 days, Y can complete one-third of the same work in 8 days and Z can complete three-fourth of the same work in 12 days. All of them work together for n days and then X and Z quit, and Y alone finishes the remaining work in 8 2/3 days. What is n equal to?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
Answer:
b
Q 70. CSAT 2025
What is X in the sequence 1, 3, 6, 11, 18, X, 42?
a)
26
b)
27
c)
29
d)
30
Answer:
c
Q 71. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?
a)
Moving to net-zero carbon is possible only by the reduction in household emissions.
b)
Low-carbon behaviour in people can be brought about by incentivising them.
c)
Cheaper goods and services can be made available to people by using low-carbon technologies.
d)
Manufacturing industries that use low-carbon technologies should be provided with subsidies.
Answer:
b
Q 72. CSAT 2025
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Supply-side investments in companies can result in low-carbon behaviour in people. II. People are not capable of adapting low-carbon behaviour without the involvement of Government and Companies. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
a
Q 73. CSAT 2025
Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and pragmatic message conveyed by the passage?
a)
Green economy is not possible without reusing critical minerals.
b)
Every sector of economy should adapt the reuse of material resources immediately.
c)
Circular economy can be beneficial for sustainable growth.
d)
Circular use of material resources is the only option for some industries for their survival.
Answer:
c
Q 74. CSAT 2025
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Automobile factories are examples of the circular economy. II. Economic growth is compatible with circular use of mineral resources. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
b
Q 75. CSAT 2025
A set (X) of 20 pipes can fill 70% of a tank in 14 minutes. Another set (Y) of 10 pipes fills 3/8th of the tank in 6 minutes. A third set (Z) of 16 pipes can empty half of the tank in 20 minutes. If half of the pipes of set X are closed and only half of the pipes of set Y are open, and all pipes of the set (Z) are open, then how long will it take to fill 50% of the tank?
a)
8 minutes
b)
10 minutes
c)
12 minutes
d)
16 minutes
Answer:
d
Q 76. CSAT 2025
If n is a natural number, then what is the number of distinct remainders of (1^n + 2^n) when divided by 4?
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
Answer:
c
Q 77. CSAT 2025
Let P = QQQ be a 3-digit number. What is the HCF of P and 481?
a)
a
b)
13
c)
37
d)
481
Answer:
c
Q 78. CSAT 2025
What is the 489th digit in the number 123456789101112...?
a)
0
b)
3
c)
6
d)
9
Answer:
d
Q 79. CSAT 2025
A mobile phone has been stolen. There are P, Q, and R. They were questioned following that only one of them is guilty. Their statements are as follows: P: I did not steal. Q stole it. Q: R did not steal. I did not steal. R: I did not steal. I do not know who did it. Who stole the mobile phone?
a)
P
b)
Q
c)
R
d)
Cannot be concluded
Answer:
a
Q 80. CSAT 2025
Three teams P, Q, R participated in a tournament where teams play exactly once against each other. A win fetches 2 points, a draw 1 point, and a loss 0 points. Each team scored exactly one goal. P got 3 points, Q got 2 points, and R got 1 point. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. The result of the match between P and Q is a draw with the score 0-0. II. The number of goals scored by R against Q is 1. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
Answer:
c