Download UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 PDF Here
हिन्दी में Download UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Hindi PDF Here
UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT Paper 2 Answer Key with Solutions
Prelims 2025 Expected Cut Off
Q 10. Activated Carbon and Its Properties (Science Tech)
Q10. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct because activated carbon is widely used for removing pollutants from industrial effluents due to its high adsorption capacity.
● Statement II is correct as activated carbon's large surface area, resulting from its porous structure, provides numerous active sites for adsorption, making it effective in adsorbing heavy metals and other pollutants.
● Statement III is correct because activated carbon can be synthesized from carbon-rich waste materials, making it economically viable and environmentally friendly. This ease of synthesis supports its attractiveness for pollution control, as mentioned in Statement I.
Therefore, both Statement II and Statement III provide scientific and practical explanations for the effectiveness and attractiveness of activated carbon in pollution control, as described in Statement I.
Q 33. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions (Polity)
Q33. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
1. Organization: Directorate of Enforcement
Some of its functions: Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018
It works under: Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Organization: Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
Some of its functions: Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962
It works under: Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
3. Organization: Directorate General of Systems and Data Management
Some of its functions: Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders
It works under: Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
2. Explanation:
● Row I is incorrect: The Directorate of Enforcement enforces the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
● Row II is correct: The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence enforces the Customs Act, 1962, and functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
● Row III is incorrect: The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, but its primary functions are related to IT systems for Customs and Central Excise, not big data analytics for tax evasion. The Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management handles big data analytics.
Q 36. India's Critical Minerals Legislation
Q36. Consider the following statements:
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct: India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in June 2023, becoming the 14th member. The MSP is a U.S.-led initiative aimed at strengthening and diversifying global critical mineral supply chains.
● Statement II is incorrect: India is not resource-rich in all the 30 critical minerals it has identified. The government has recognized this gap and is working to enhance exploration efforts through initiatives like the National Critical Mineral Mission.
● Statement III is correct: In 2023, the Indian Parliament amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining leases and composite licenses for certain critical minerals.
Q 38. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q38. Consider the following statements:
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct: According to NSE data and BIS reports, India has emerged as a significant player in the global equity derivatives market, particularly in options. In 2023, India accounted for a substantial portion of global equity option volumes, with more than 80% of global equity index option trades occurring on Indian exchanges like NSE.
● Statement II is correct: In January 2024, India's stock market briefly surpassed Hong Kong's, becoming the fourth largest in the world by market capitalization.
● Statement III is incorrect: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) serves as the regulatory authority for the securities market in India. SEBI is responsible for protecting investor interests, regulating stock market operations, taking action against unregistered financial advisors, and issuing guidelines related to derivatives trading. SEBI actively addresses issues related to unregistered advisors and regularly cautions small investors about trading risks.
Q 39. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q39. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
2. Explanation: The circular economy is a sustainable model that emphasizes the reuse, recycling, and efficient use of resources, thereby creating a closed-loop system. Statement I is correct because the circular economy reduces greenhouse gas emissions by minimizing waste and lowering resource consumption. Statement II is correct as it reduces the use of raw materials by promoting recycling and reuse, thus conserving finite resources. Statement III is also correct because it targets waste reduction in production through efficient design and resource reuse. Both Statements II and III contribute to the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions, explaining Statement I. Therefore, Option A is the correct answer.
Q 40. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q40. Consider the following statements:
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct: *Capital receipts* are those receipts of the government which either create a liability or lead to a reduction in the financial assets of the government. This includes borrowings and disinvestment.
● Statement II is correct: *Borrowings* (such as loans from the RBI, foreign governments, or through the issuance of government securities) and *disinvestment* (selling the government’s stake in public sector enterprises) are indeed categorized as capital receipts.
● Statement III is incorrect: *Interest received on loans* given by the Central government to states or other countries is classified as a revenue receipt. It represents income for the government and does not create any liability.
Q 41. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q41. Consider the following countries:
I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia
How many of the above are members of NATO?
2. Explanation: The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a political and military alliance established in 1949, which has expanded to include 32 member countries. Among the countries listed:
● Austria is *not* a NATO member.
● Bulgaria joined NATO in 2004.
● Croatia became a NATO member on April 1, 2009.
● Serbia is *not* a NATO member.
● Sweden joined NATO in 2024.
● North Macedonia became NATO’s 30th member in 2020.
Therefore, the countries that are NATO members are Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia, totaling four members.
Q 42. Andes Mountains in South America
Q42. Consider the following countries:
I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela
Andes mountains pass through how many of them?
2. Explanation: The Andes Mountains are a prominent mountain range that extends along the western coast of South America. They pass through several countries, including Venezuela, Ecuador, Bolivia, and Colombia. Therefore, options I (Bolivia), III (Colombia), IV (Ecuador), and VI (Venezuela) are correct. However, the Andes do not pass through Brazil or Paraguay. Brazil is located to the east of the Andes, while Paraguay lies on the Paraguayan Plateau, also east of the Andes. Hence, the Andes Mountains pass through only four of the listed countries.
Q 43. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q43. Consider the following water bodies:
I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon
Through how many of them does the equator pass?
2. Explanation: The equator is an imaginary line that divides the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. It passes through several countries and water bodies, but not through the ones listed in the question.
○ *Lake Tanganyika* is located in central Africa and lies entirely south of the Equator.
○ *Lake Tonlé Sap* is situated in Cambodia, approximately 13° north of the Equator.
○ *Patos Lagoon* is in southern Brazil, around 30° south of the Equator.
Therefore, the equator does not pass through any of these water bodies, making the correct answer Option D: None.
Q 44. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q44. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:
I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct. In the year 2022–23, India was the largest producer and exporter of turmeric globally, with a cultivation area of approximately 3.24 lakh hectares and production of 11.61 lakh tonnes. India accounted for over 75% of global turmeric production and 62% of the global turmeric trade.
● Statement II is correct. India’s diverse soil and climatic conditions support the cultivation of more than 30 varieties of turmeric, each with unique characteristics like curcumin content and aroma.
● Statement III is correct. The states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producers in India, consistently contributing significantly to the country's overall production.
Q 45. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q45. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?
I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Radiometric dating techniques have confirmed that the rock formations along the eastern coast of South America (Brazil) and the western coast of Africa are similar in age, type, and structure. This is one of the most compelling geological evidences supporting the theory of continental drift.
● Statement 2 is correct: Ghana, located on the west coast of Africa, has rich gold deposits along its coast, yet there is no local source rock to account for this mineral wealth. The likely explanation is that these gold deposits originated from the Brazil Plateau which, before the continents drifted apart, lay adjacent to what is now Ghana. This is one of the pieces of evidence supporting the theory of continental drift.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Gondwana system of sedimentary rocks, particularly tillite deposits (sediments formed from glacial activity), found in India, have strikingly similar counterparts in Africa, Antarctica, Australia, Madagascar, Falkland Islands, and South America. These similarities provide evidence that these landmasses were once part of a supercontinent called Gondwanaland.
Q 46. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q46. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
2. Explanation: *Statement I* is accurate because dust particles are indeed more concentrated in subtropical and temperate regions. This is due to the presence of dry winds and arid conditions, which facilitate the suspension of dust in the atmosphere. These regions, such as the Sahara and Arabian deserts, are characterized by strong winds and minimal vegetation, leading to higher dust levels. In contrast, equatorial regions are humid and vegetated, reducing dust through rainfall and plant cover, while polar regions are cold and icy, limiting dust production. *Statement II* is incorrect because it inaccurately claims that subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds, whereas these regions actually experience prevalent dry winds, contributing to higher dust concentrations.
Q 47. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q47. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct. In January, the Northern Hemisphere experiences significant cooling over its landmasses due to their lower heat retention capacity. This results in isotherms bending equatorward over continents. Conversely, oceans, which have a higher heat retention capacity, remain warmer, causing isotherms to bend poleward when crossing them.
● Statement II is correct and explains Statement I. The oceans' higher specific heat capacity means they cool down more slowly than landmasses. Consequently, during January, the air over oceans is warmer than over land, leading to the observed isotherm patterns. This temperature contrast is the reason for the isotherms' behavior described in Statement I.
Q 48. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q48. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct. Chalk is a highly permeable rock due to its porous nature, allowing water to pass through easily. In contrast, clay is one of the least permeable rocks because its fine particles are tightly packed, hindering water movement.
● Statement II is correct. Chalk is porous, meaning it has many tiny holes that can absorb and retain water, explaining its permeability.
● Statement III is incorrect. While clay is not very permeable, it is indeed porous. The pores in clay are extremely small, which slows down water movement, making it poorly permeable. Therefore, only Statement II correctly explains Statement I.
Q 49. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q49. Consider the following statements:
I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface.
II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature.
III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is incorrect. Without an atmosphere, there would be no air or clouds to scatter or absorb sunlight. Consequently, areas in direct sunlight, especially near the equator, would become extremely hot, with surface temperatures potentially exceeding 100°C, similar to the Moon, which lacks an atmosphere. However, without an atmosphere to trap heat or distribute it via wind, temperatures would drop rapidly after sunset, leading to extremely cold conditions in shadowed areas or during nighttime.
● Statement II is correct. The atmosphere plays a crucial role in regulating Earth's temperature by absorbing heat from the Sun during the day and slowing its escape at night. This heat-trapping ability maintains the planet's average surface temperature around 15°C (59°F), making it conducive to life. Without this natural insulation, Earth would experience extreme temperature fluctuations between day and night, akin to those on celestial bodies with thin or no atmospheres.
● Statement III is correct. Certain gases in Earth's atmosphere, particularly greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane, and water vapor, have the unique ability to absorb and trap radiation. This property makes them especially effective in retaining heat within the atmosphere, significantly contributing to the greenhouse effect.
Q 50. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q50. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Explanation:
*Statement I is correct.* The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) is crucial for the upliftment of the rural poor, as more than 80% of low-producing indigenous animals are owned by small and marginal farmers and landless laborers. This initiative is vital for enhancing milk production and productivity of bovines, meeting the growing demand for milk, and making dairying more profitable for rural farmers.
*Statement II is correct.* The Rashtriya Gokul Mission was launched to promote the rearing and conservation of indigenous cattle and buffalo breeds in a scientific and holistic manner. The mission aims to enhance the productivity of native breeds, preserve their genetic diversity, and improve rural livelihoods. It focuses on developing high-genetic merit animals through modern breeding technologies, establishing Gokul Grams (cattle care centers), and supporting traditional animal husbandry practices.
Q 52. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q52. Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:
I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of tourism is being led by India.
Which is/are correct?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct. BIMSTEC is a regional organization consisting of seven member states: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, and Thailand.
● Statement II is incorrect. BIMSTEC was established in June 1997 with the adoption of the Bangkok Declaration, not the Dhaka Declaration of 1999.
● Statement III is incorrect. While Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand are founding members, Nepal joined later in 2004.
● Statement IV is incorrect. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of tourism is led by Nepal, not India. India leads the Security pillar, which includes sub-sectors like Counter-Terrorism and Transnational Crime, Disaster Management, and Energy Security.
Q 53. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q53. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'?
1. The President of India
2. The Prime Minister of India
3. The Chief Justice of India
4. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. Explanation: The Gandhi Peace Prize is awarded by a jury composed of five members. These include the Prime Minister of India, the Chief Justice of India, and the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, along with two other eminent personalities. The Prime Minister heads this jury. The President of India is not part of this jury, making Option 1 incorrect. Therefore, the correct members from the given options are II, III, and IV, which corresponds to Option C.
Q 55. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q55. Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:
I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct. The AI Action Summit held in Paris in February 2025 was co-chaired by the Prime Minister of India, Shri Narendra Modi, and the President of France, Emmanuel Macron. This summit built on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit in 2023 and the Seoul Summit in 2024.
● Statement II is incorrect. Although 58 countries signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI, the United States and the United Kingdom did not sign this joint statement. Therefore, only Statement I is correct.
Q 56. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q56. Consider the following pairs:
I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027
III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation:
1. Pair 1 is correct. The UN General Assembly has declared *2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer.* This initiative aims to highlight the crucial role of women farmers in food security, nutrition, and poverty eradication, and to address the challenges they face.
2. Pair 2 is correct. The United Nations has proclaimed *2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism.* The United Nations General Assembly adopted a resolution on 26 February 2024 to declare 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism. It aims to emphasize the active promotion of sustainable and resilient tourism as a vital tool for poverty eradication, supporting the involvement of women, youth, older persons, and persons with disabilities, expanding economic opportunities, and creating decent jobs and income sources.
3. Pair 3 is correct. The UN General Assembly has adopted a resolution to declare *2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust.* It calls on the international community to resolve conflicts through inclusive dialogue and negotiation in order to ensure the strengthening of peace and trust in relations between UN member states as a value that promotes sustainable development, peace and security, and human rights.
4. Pair 4 is correct. In 2024, the UN General Assembly declared *2029 the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence* to take advantage of the close approach of 99942 Apophis and raise global awareness about asteroids. On 13 April 2029, the asteroid 99942 Apophis will pass safely at a distance of about 32,000 kilometers above Earth’s surface, within the geostationary orbit, posing no threat to the planet. This extremely close approach will make the asteroid visible to billions of people with the naked eye in the clear night sky.
Q 57. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q57. Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:
I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct. The 16th BRICS Summit was indeed held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. The leaders adopted the ‘Kazan Declaration’ at the conclusion of the Summit.
● Statement II is correct. Indonesia has officially joined the BRICS group as a full member, effective from January 2025, making it the 10th member of the bloc.
● Statement III is incorrect. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was “Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security,” not "Strengthening Multiculturalism."
Q 59. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q59. Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:
I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct. The first Kho Kho World Cup was indeed held in New Delhi, India in January 2025.
● Statement II is incorrect. The Indian men's team won against Nepal with a score of 54-36, not 78-40.
● Statement III is incorrect. The Indian women's team defeated Nepal with a score of 78-40, not 54-36.
Therefore, only Statement I is correct, making Option A the right choice.
Q 60. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q60. Consider the following statements:
I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Option B: II only
2. Explanation:
*Statement I is incorrect.* The 45th Chess Olympiad was held in Budapest, Hungary, and D Gukesh did not become the world's youngest winner by defeating Nepomniachtchi in this event. Instead, he won his second individual gold medal in a row. Additionally, Gukesh became the youngest world chess champion by defeating Ding Liren in the 2024 FIDE World Chess Championship held in Singapore.
*Statement II is correct.* Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player of Indian origin, holds the record for being the youngest Grandmaster in history at 12 years, four months, and 25 days, surpassing Sergey Karjakin's previous record.
Q 70. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q70. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
2. Explanation: The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) is a significant environmental regulation enacted by the European Union (EU). It is designed to combat climate change and biodiversity loss by halting and reversing ecosystem degradation across the EU. The law includes legally binding targets for restoring degraded ecosystems, focusing on areas with high potential for carbon capture and disaster impact reduction. By 2030, EU Member States must implement restoration measures covering at least 20% of land and sea areas. The NRL emphasizes restoring various ecosystems to enhance biodiversity and ecosystem services, supporting the EU's climate neutrality goal by 2050.
Q 71. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q71. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct: Revenue Deficit
● Definition: *Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts*
● Calculation:
○ Revenue Expenditure = ₹80,000 crores
○ Revenue Receipts = ₹60,000 crores
○ So, *Revenue Deficit = ₹80,000 – ₹60,000 = ₹20,000 crores*
● Statement II is correct: Fiscal Deficit
● Definition: *Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts (excluding borrowings)*
○ In this question, total borrowings by the government are ₹10,000 crores, which means the gap between the government’s total expenditure and its non-borrowed receipts is being met by borrowing ₹10,000 crores.
○ *Fiscal Deficit is the total borrowing requirement of the government. In the given scenario, the borrowings directly represent the fiscal deficit.*
○ *Fiscal Deficit = Borrowings = ₹10,000 crores*
● Statement III is correct: Primary Deficit
● Definition: *Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments*
● Calculation:
○ Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crores
○ Interest Payments = ₹6,000 crores
○ *Primary Deficit = ₹10,000 – ₹6,000 = ₹4,000 crores*
● Hence, all three statements are correct.
Q 72. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q72. India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
2. Explanation: The *International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC)* is a 7,200-kilometer-long multimodal transportation network that connects *India, Iran, Russia, Central Asia, and Europe*. Initiated by India, Iran, and Russia in 2000, the corridor aims to enhance trade connectivity by reducing transport time and costs. The route begins in India, traverses through Iran, and extends to Russia and Europe via Azerbaijan and Central Asia. This corridor provides a shorter and more economical alternative to the traditional sea route through the Suez Canal, making Option A the correct choice.
Q 73. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q73. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is incorrect: The United States is the largest producer of ethanol in the world, consistently accounting for over 50% of global ethanol production in recent years. For example, in 2024, the U.S. produced approximately 16.2 billion gallons of ethanol, accounting for about 52% of global production. In contrast, Brazil produced around 8.78 billion gallons, representing 28% of global output. Thus, the United States produces nearly twice as much ethanol as Brazil.
● Statement II is correct: In the United States, ethanol is primarily produced from corn, which is abundantly cultivated in the Midwest and forms the backbone of the American ethanol industry. In contrast, Brazil produces most of its ethanol from sugarcane, which is well-suited to its tropical climate. Sugarcane-based ethanol is considered more energy-efficient and has a lower carbon footprint compared to corn-based ethanol.
Q 74. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q74. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. Explanation:
● Statement I: This statement is correct as it highlights the broader climatic risks that Peninsular India faces due to climate change. The region's tropical location makes it vulnerable to intensified monsoon variability, leading to extreme rainfall events causing floods and cyclones, as well as periods of inadequate rainfall resulting in droughts. These climatic changes are interconnected with the rise in wet-bulb temperatures, as emphasized by the World Bank's warning.
● Statement II: This statement accurately captures the core implication of the World Bank’s warning. When wet-bulb temperatures exceed 35 °C, the human body can no longer effectively cool itself through sweating and evaporation, creating life-threatening conditions. This poses a grave risk to humans and animals, as they rely on various forms of heat dissipation to regulate body temperature. Hence, this statement directly addresses the health and survival risks associated with extreme wet-bulb temperatures.
Q 75. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q75. A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores.
It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts.
The country's interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores.
What is the gross primary deficit?
2. Explanation:
To determine the Gross Primary Deficit, we utilize the formula:
\[ \text{Gross Primary Deficit} = \text{Fiscal Deficit} - \text{Interest Payments} \]
Given:
● Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crores
● Interest Liabilities = ₹1,500 crores
The non-debt creating capital receipts of ₹10,000 crores are not directly involved in calculating the primary deficit. They are part of the fiscal deficit's financing but do not impact the primary deficit calculation.
Therefore, the calculation is:
\[ \text{Gross Primary Deficit} = 50,000 - 1,500 = 48,500 \text{ crores} \]
Thus, the correct answer is Option A: ₹48,500 crores.
Q 76. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q76. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct: The 15th Finance Commission recommended grants of ₹4,800 crore (₹1,200 crore each year) from 2022-23 to 2025-26 for incentivizing states to enhance educational outcomes.
● Statement II is incorrect: The 15th Finance Commission recommended that 41% of the divisible pool of Central taxes be shared with the States for the period 2021-26. This is a 1% adjustment from the 42% recommended by the 14th Finance Commission, to account for the newly formed Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
● Statement III is correct: The 15th Finance Commission recommended ₹45,000 crore as a performance-based incentive for all states for carrying out agricultural reforms.
● Statement IV is correct: The 15th Finance Commission reintroduced ‘Tax and Fiscal Efforts’ as a criterion for horizontal devolution with a weightage of 2.5%. This criterion aims to reward states with higher tax collection efficiency. This criterion was previously used by the 11th and 12th Finance Commissions.
Q 77. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q77. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct: The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) primarily provides loans and guarantees to middle-income countries and some creditworthy low-income countries. It offers financial products to support development programs, infrastructure projects, and economic reforms, aiming to reduce poverty and promote sustainable development.
● Statement II is incorrect: The IBRD is not the only institution working on poverty reduction. It is part of the World Bank Group, which includes other institutions like the International Development Association (IDA), International Finance Corporation (IFC), Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA), and International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID). These institutions work collaboratively, not "single-handedly," to reduce poverty and promote development.
● Statement III is correct: The IBRD was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference with the primary goal of financing the reconstruction of European nations devastated by World War II. After the post-war reconstruction, its mandate expanded to global economic development and poverty eradication.
Q 78. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q78. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct. RTGS transactions are settled in real-time, meaning they are processed instantly without any waiting period. In contrast, NEFT transactions are processed in batches at specific intervals, which means they take some time to settle.
● Statement II is incorrect. According to RBI guidelines, inward RTGS transactions are free of charge, just like inward NEFT transactions. Banks cannot charge the beneficiary for receiving funds via RTGS or NEFT.
● Statement III is incorrect. Both RTGS and NEFT are now available 24×7, 365 days a year, following reforms by the Reserve Bank of India. This means there are no restricted operating hours for either service.
Q 79. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q79. Consider the following countries:
I. United Arab Emirates
II. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
2. Explanation: As of now, UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is accepted for international merchant payments in several countries other than India. Among the countries listed in the question, United Arab Emirates (UAE), France, and Singapore officially support UPI for international merchant payments. However, Germany and Bangladesh do not currently have UPI integration. Therefore, the correct answer is that UPI is accepted in only three of the countries mentioned: UAE, France, and Singapore.
Q 80. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q80. Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana':
I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct: The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, launched in February 2024, is an ambitious initiative by the Government of India aiming to install rooftop solar panels in one crore (10 million) households in the residential sector by March 2027. This large-scale adoption of solar energy is a significant step towards achieving energy self-reliance and promoting sustainable energy practices across the nation.
● Statement II is correct: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has emphasized the importance of capacity building under this scheme. It plans to provide training at the grassroots level on the installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of solar rooftop systems. This initiative ensures that there is adequate skilled manpower to support the widespread adoption of solar energy.
● Statement III is correct: A critical component of the scheme is the development of a skilled workforce to support the solar energy sector. The objectives include training over 3 lakh individuals through a combination of fresh skilling and up-skilling programs. Out of these, at least 1 lakh individuals will be trained as Solar PV Technicians, specializing in photovoltaic systems. These initiatives are part of the scheme’s capacity building component, aiming to empower individuals with the necessary skills to contribute to the solar energy ecosystem.
Q 96. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q96. Consider the following countries:
1. United Kingdom
2. Denmark
3. New Zealand
4. Australia
5. Brazil
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
2. Explanation: Among the listed countries, four have more than four time zones. The United Kingdom has 9 time zones, including overseas territories like the Pitcairn Islands and the British Indian Ocean Territory. Denmark spans 5 time zones, primarily due to Greenland. New Zealand also has 5 time zones, covering its main territory and islands like the Cook Islands and Chatham Islands. Australia has 9 time zones, including its mainland and islands such as Christmas Island and Norfolk Island. Brazil, however, has only 4 time zones, covering its vast mainland and adjacent islands. Therefore, only four of the countries listed have more than four time zones.
Q 97. UPSC Prelims 2025 Paper 1 Answer Key with Solutions
Q97. Consider the following statements:
1. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
2. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Explanation:
● Statement I is correct. Anadyr in Russia and Nome in Alaska are geographically close, separated by the Bering Strait, but they lie on opposite sides of the International Date Line (IDL). This results in a difference in calendar dates despite the proximity. For instance, if it is Monday morning in Anadyr, it would still be Sunday morning in Nome.
● Statement II is incorrect. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it cannot be Tuesday in Nome. Instead, Nome is a day behind Anadyr. Therefore, if it is Monday in Anadyr, it is still Sunday in Nome. The IDL causes this discrepancy, as it adds a day when traveling westward and subtracts a day when traveling eastward.
Q 99. Natural Resource Reserves by Country (International Relations)
Q99. Consider the following pairs:
1. Botswana: Diamond
2. Chile: Lithium
3. Indonesia: Nickel
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
2. Explanation:
● Pair 1 is correct: Botswana is renowned as one of the world’s largest producers of diamonds by value. The discovery of diamonds in the 1960s significantly boosted its economy, and the country has effectively managed its diamond resources through partnerships, notably with De Beers.
● Pair 2 is correct: Chile is part of the “Lithium Triangle” with Argentina and Bolivia, possessing some of the largest lithium reserves globally. These reserves are primarily found in salt flats like Salar de Atacama, and lithium is crucial for batteries in electric vehicles and electronics.
● Pair 3 is correct: Indonesia is the world’s largest producer of nickel, with extensive reserves. It plays a vital role in the global nickel supply chain, essential for stainless steel production and electric vehicle batteries. Indonesia has also implemented export bans to promote domestic processing.